# What proves that a random process with zero diffusion is not a martingale?

[Cross-posted.]

Consider the process $dX_t=W_t dt+0 dW_t$, alternatively $X_t=\int_0^t W_s ds$. $W_t$ is Brownian motion. I read a proof that $X_t$ is a martingale that simply states “Because the diffusion of $dX_t$ is 0, $X_t$ is not a martingale.”

By definition, a stochastic process $X_t$ adapted to a filtration $\{F_t\}$ is a martingale iff $E(|X_t|) <\infty, t \geq 0$ and $E(X_t|{\cal F}_s)=X_s, 0\leq s

Question: What exactly about either of these conditions establishes that if a random process has 0 diffusion, it is not a martingale?

I am asking because I see the 0-diffusion condition used often for this purpose, but in the above example, of a process which is still random even though it has a zero diffusion, I don’t get it.